Shop Products
Houzz Logo Print
anthony_s61

Property with signs of prior mold exposure

T B
last year

I'm currently considering a property in a state where seller disclosure of mold is not required. The general home inspection (which would not cover mold testing) was completed with no findings of mold (they would not be looking for it specifically and would only find it if it were present in open and exposed areas).


However, what the home inspector did find was hard evidence that mold treatments were performed recently. What is proper negotiating etiquette in such situations? Is it reasonable for a prospective buyer to ask the seller to cover the cost of an unbiased (meaning seller chooses the service provider) mold inspection? Or is the seller likely only willing to agree to the service provider of their choosing (some potentially for biased results)?


Or is this type of situation always considered to be the responsibility of the prospective buyer?


Without going into specific details, the evidence of mold treatment occurring I would consider definitive. Additionally the property is fairly recent (within 5 years). But there is one area that seems to have gotten an unusually high amount of "attention"/work/patch up compared to everywhere else. This is more speculative but wondering if the 2 are linked - note the evidence isn't located in this area but it wouldn't have to be.


I'm just here looking for impartial feedback and thoughts - thanks!



Comments (2)